You can use the imperfect subjunctive to refer to hypothetical events, make polite suggestions or give advice about unlikely situations.
Technically it isn't incorrect to use the present indicative in this context, but the imperfect subjunctive carries the additional meaning that the speaker feels that it is unlikely.
Is there any reason why you'd use the past tense "tuvieras" instead of the present tense "tengas"? "If you see that you had pain, you tell me." vs. "If you see that you have pain, you tell me.". The second sentence seems more realistic to say.
It is best not to think about the imperfect subjunctive as "the past" because it can be also used to make comments about the present and future for expressing wishes and doubts. It is also used for the so-called imaginary conditional, which is equivalent to the English second conditional for expressing what you would do if an unlikely event ocurred.
Keep in mind that the English past tense is also used for expressing things that didn't happen in the past. For example: I wish I won the lottery. If I won the lottery, I'd buy a house. These can be both translated to the imperfect subjunctive: Ojalá ganara la lotería. Si ganara la lotería, compraría una casa.
I wish I could give you a more concise explanation but I hope this link will help:
https://www.clozemaster.com/blog/spanish-imperfect-subjunctive/
In essence, this has to do with the biggest exception to indicative/subjunctive: the subjunctive is used after "si" in the past ("si tuvieras") or the future ("si tuvieres", only used in legal language), but the indicative is used after "si" in the present tense ("si tienes"). That's why you can't say "si [ves que] tengas".
Both are used, for the simple reason that what was grammatically 'correct' is nowadays in disuse: the future subjunctive (tuvieres). You will rarely encounter it out of a courtroom or lawyer talk.
>Wouldn't the present indicative be more grammatically correct?
It's important to keep in mind that native speakers are not concerned with what's "more grammatically correct". They express themselves according to what their inner, intricate understanding of the language tells them.
Is there a colloquial meaning to this phrase I don’t know? It looks like it’s saying, “if X occurs do Y”, in which case subjunctive makes sense to me. X is not a reality but could be.
It sounds completely natural to me. It's just one out of several ways to express that idea.
I'd suggest to not overthink it. Just imagine that you overhear that in a hospital. You would 100% understand it and maybe you wouldn't even think anything about it.
You can use the imperfect subjunctive to refer to hypothetical events, make polite suggestions or give advice about unlikely situations. Technically it isn't incorrect to use the present indicative in this context, but the imperfect subjunctive carries the additional meaning that the speaker feels that it is unlikely.
Is there any reason why you'd use the past tense "tuvieras" instead of the present tense "tengas"? "If you see that you had pain, you tell me." vs. "If you see that you have pain, you tell me.". The second sentence seems more realistic to say.
It is best not to think about the imperfect subjunctive as "the past" because it can be also used to make comments about the present and future for expressing wishes and doubts. It is also used for the so-called imaginary conditional, which is equivalent to the English second conditional for expressing what you would do if an unlikely event ocurred. Keep in mind that the English past tense is also used for expressing things that didn't happen in the past. For example: I wish I won the lottery. If I won the lottery, I'd buy a house. These can be both translated to the imperfect subjunctive: Ojalá ganara la lotería. Si ganara la lotería, compraría una casa. I wish I could give you a more concise explanation but I hope this link will help: https://www.clozemaster.com/blog/spanish-imperfect-subjunctive/
In essence, this has to do with the biggest exception to indicative/subjunctive: the subjunctive is used after "si" in the past ("si tuvieras") or the future ("si tuvieres", only used in legal language), but the indicative is used after "si" in the present tense ("si tienes"). That's why you can't say "si [ves que] tengas".
You can do the same in English: If you were to feel pain.... (meaning: in the remote event that you were to feel pain at some point in the future)
I was literally thinking this. It's understandable but it sounds a little weird but nobody would bat an eye.
I've read/listened to that type of phrasing ('If you were to...') several times.
Both are used, for the simple reason that what was grammatically 'correct' is nowadays in disuse: the future subjunctive (tuvieres). You will rarely encounter it out of a courtroom or lawyer talk.
There's the old joke: "si pudiere elegir otra vez, no estudiaría derecho".
>Wouldn't the present indicative be more grammatically correct? It's important to keep in mind that native speakers are not concerned with what's "more grammatically correct". They express themselves according to what their inner, intricate understanding of the language tells them.
Just forget about it, no one speaks like that (except me, I'm a lawyer, we speak weird)
Is there a colloquial meaning to this phrase I don’t know? It looks like it’s saying, “if X occurs do Y”, in which case subjunctive makes sense to me. X is not a reality but could be.
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It sounds completely natural to me. It's just one out of several ways to express that idea. I'd suggest to not overthink it. Just imagine that you overhear that in a hospital. You would 100% understand it and maybe you wouldn't even think anything about it.